Proof of the reflective property of the ellipese

633 Views Asked by At

I'm trying to prove the reflection property of the ellipses for an optics problem. The property is that that a ray of light originated at one of the ellipse's foci reflects in such a way to pass through the other focus.

The simplest way I figured out to prove this is to prove that a line connecting one of the focus to any point of the ellipse has the same angle with the normal at that point as a line connecting the other focus with the same point.

So... Let

$\frac{\displaystyle x^2}{\displaystyle a^2}+\frac{\displaystyle y^2}{\displaystyle b^2}=1\,\,\,\rightarrow\,\,\,y=\pm b\sqrt{1-\frac{\displaystyle x^2}{\displaystyle b^2}}$

be the ellipse equation. The foci are at positions $(0,\pm f)$ where $f=\sqrt{b^2-a^2}$.

The lines connecting the foci to the point $(x_{0},y_{0})$ have equations:

$line\,1\,\,\,y=y_{0}+\left(\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}-f}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)(x-x_{0})$

$line\,2\,\,\,y=y_{0}+\left(\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}+f}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)(x-x_{0})$

and the line equation of the normal to the point $(x_{0},y_{0})$ is

$y=y_{0}-\frac{\displaystyle 1}{\displaystyle y'(x_{0})}(x-x_{0})$ $=y_{0}+\frac{\displaystyle a^2}{\displaystyle b^2}\frac{\displaystyle y(x_{0})}{\displaystyle x_{0}}(x-x_{0}).$

The angle between line 1 and the normal is then

$\theta_{1}=\arctan\left(\frac{\displaystyle a^2}{\displaystyle b^2}\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)-\arctan\left(\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}-f}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)$

And the angle between line 2 and the normal is

$\theta_{2}=\arctan\left(\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}+f}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)-\arctan\left(\frac{\displaystyle a^2}{\displaystyle b^2}\frac{\displaystyle y_{0}}{\displaystyle x_{0}}\right)$

And so... I'm trying to proof (with no success still) that $\theta_{1}=\theta{2}$.

Could you lend me a tip?

Thank you very much.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

A hint:

From the formula for $\tan(\alpha-\beta)$ one can deduce that $$\arctan v-\arctan u=\arctan{v-u\over 1+uv}\ ,$$ up to multiples of $\pi$. The latter should be taken care of, if necessary.