I tried to prove Well-Ordering Principle by myself, and I finally did it. However, I'm not sure if this proof is correct. Can anyone evaluate my proof?
Proof: Since the set of natural numbers, $\mathbb{N}$, is bounded below (every element of $\mathbb{N}$ is equal or greater than zero), an arbitrary subset (let's name this set $X$) of $\mathbb{N}$ is also bounded below. So, by the greatest lower bound principle, there exists an infimum of $X$. Let $a:=\inf (X)$. Then, every element of $X$ is equal or greater than $a$. Also, for every real number $y$ which is greater than $a$, there exists an element $k$ (which is equal or greater than $a$) of $X$ which is less than $y$. Therefore, $k=a$, and since $a$ is an infimum of $X$, it becomes a minimum element of $X$. (Q.E.D.)
How do you conclude $k=a$? I means consider the set $X:= \{1,2\}$ which has inf of $a:= 1$. Then consider the real number $3$ which has $k:= 2 \in X$ s.t. $2 < 3$, but $k \neq a$. If you are a little more careful, you could use inf's and real numbers to prove the well-ordering principle of the natural numbers, but this is a bit of a vacuous statement, as you certainly need to use the well-orderedness of $\mathbb{N}$ to construct $\mathbb{R}$. Well-orderedness is more or less an axiom of the natural numbers. You can try to prove that it is equivalent to induction too, e.g. as seen here.