To prove(using the three probability axioms): $$P(\varnothing)=0$$ Is this method correct?
Let $A$ be an event such that $A=\Omega$. Then $A^\complement=\varnothing$, $$P(A)+P(A^\complement)=1$$ $$P(\Omega)+P(\varnothing)=1\tag2$$ $$P(\varnothing)=0$$
Please, post any proof that is better/correct.
The method that you use is correct.
You can go for:$$1=P(S)=P(S\cup\varnothing)=P(S)+P(\varnothing)=1+P(\varnothing)$$implying that $P(\varnothing)=0$.
Here the first equality is a consequence of the axioma saying that $P(S)=1$ and the third equality is a consequence of the axioma saying that $P(A\cup B)=P(A)+P(B)$ is implied by $A\cap B=\varnothing$.
Actually a proof that is better does not exist.