$${n \choose k}={k-1 \choose k-1}+{k \choose k-1}+{k+1 \choose k-1}+\cdots+{n-1 \choose k-1}$$
my attempt:
in the first let's write the relation between ${n \choose k}$ and ${n \choose k-1}$ and for explain my idea, let's do that when $n=6$ and $k=4$
so ${6 \choose 4}$ is the number of ways to choose 4 element from [6],my idea is that we can choose 4 element from [6] by choosing 3 elements from [6] and 1 element from the remaining (3) so it is ${6 \choose 3} .{3 \choose 1}$ but we must to note that they are four similar 4-subset so we must to divise by 4
so the finally expression is that $\frac{{6 \choose 3} .{3 \choose 1}}{4}$
and we can doing the same thing with any $n$ and $k$
so ${n \choose k}=\frac{{n \choose k-1} .{n-(k-1) \choose 1}}{n}$
so now it is enough to show that $\frac{{n \choose k-1} .{n-(k-1) \choose 1}}{n}={k-1 \choose k-1}+{k \choose k-1}+{k+1 \choose k-1}+....+{n-1 \choose k-1}$
now let's return to $\frac{{6 \choose 3} .{3 \choose 1}}{4}$ that is the numbers of different ways to choose 3 people from 6 and 1 from the remaining, we can do that by an other way
this way is choosing 3 element from 3 with an known element element from the remaining ,or choose 3 element from 4 with an other element from the remaining , or choose 3 element from 5 with an other element from the remaining
so that mean :${3 \choose 3}.1+{4 \choose 3}.1+{5 \choose3}.1$
and also we can do that with any k and n , so by same steps we can can prove ${n \choose k}={k-1 \choose k-1}+{k \choose k-1}+{k+1 \choose k-1}+....+{n-1 \choose k-1}$
I think I didn't explain my idea in good way, but maybe the general idea it's clear
so what do you think about it?
Here is an algebraic proof: We have (exercise) $$\binom{n}k=\binom{n-1}{k}+\binom{n-1}{k-1}$$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$ and $k\in\mathbb N\cap[1,n]$.
So $$\binom{n}k = \binom{n-1}{k-1}+\color{blue}{\binom{n-1}{k}}=\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\color{blue}{\binom{n-2}{k-1}+\binom{n-2}{k}}=\dots=\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\binom{n-2}{k-1}+\dots+\binom{k}{k}.$$
But now we are done because $$\binom{k}{k}=1=\binom{k-1}{k-1}.$$
My proof can be fully formalized using induction.