Proof that $$ p^2 \equiv 1 \mod{30} \vee p^2 \equiv 19 \mod{30} $$ for $p>5$ and $p$ is prime. $\newcommand{\Mod}[1]{\ (\mathrm{mod}\ #1)}$
My try
Let show that $$p^2 - 1 \equiv 0 \Mod{30} \vee p^2 - 1\equiv 18 \Mod{30}$$ Let check $$p^2 -1 = (p-1)(p+1) $$ We know that (for example from here) that this is dividable by $2$ and by $3$ so by $6$ Let consider $5$ cases: $$\exists_k p=5k \rightarrow \mbox{false because p is prime}$$ $$\exists_k p=5k+1 \rightarrow p^2 - 1 = 5k(5k+2) \rightarrow \mbox{ dividable by 6 and by 5 so we have rest 0}$$ $$\exists_k p=5k+2 \rightarrow p^2 - 1 = (5k+1)(5k+3) \rightarrow \mbox{ ??? }$$ $$\exists_k p=5k+3 \rightarrow p^2 - 1 = (5k+2)(5k+4) \rightarrow \mbox{ ??? }$$ $$\exists_k p=5k+4 \rightarrow p^2 - 1 = (5k+3)(5k+5) \rightarrow \mbox{ dividable by 6 and by 5 so we have rest 0}$$
I have stucked with $???$ cases...
To extend your approach:
Let $p=5k+r$ with $r=1,2,-1,-2.$
As you note, when $r=1,-1$ you get $p^2\equiv 1\pmod{5}$ and hence $p^2\equiv 1\pmod{30},$ since you've already shown $p^2\equiv 1\pmod 6.$
In the other cases, you need to deduce additional properties about $k,$ because just $p=5k\pm 2$ doesn't let us deduce it alone.
If $r=\pm 2$ then $0\equiv p^2-1\equiv (r-1-k)(r+1-k)\pmod{6}.$
So when $r=2,$ we need $(1-k)(3-k)$ divisible by $6$ and hence $k$ is odd and $k\equiv 0,1\pmod{3},$ which means $k\equiv 1,3\pmod{6}.$
When $r=-2,$ we need $(1+k)(3+k)$ divisible by $6$, so you need $k$ odd and $k\equiv 0,2\pmod{3}$ which means $k\equiv 3,5\pmod{6}.$
These two cases can be written $k\equiv r\pm 1\pmod{6}$ for $r\in \{-2,2\}.$ Writing $k=6m+r\pm 1$ you get:
$$p=5k+r=30m+5r\pm 5 +r=30m+6r\pm 5,$$ and so:
$$p^2-1 \equiv (6r\pm 5)^2 =36r^2\pm 60r+25=6r^2+ 25=49\equiv 19\pmod{30}$$ sihce $r^2=4.$
An easier proof:
Start with $p^2\equiv 1\pmod 6$ if $\gcd(p,6)=1$ and $p^2\equiv \pm 1\pmod{5}$ if $\gcd(p,5)=1.$
Now,
Show if $m\equiv 1\pmod{6}$ and $m\equiv 1\pmod{5}$ then $m\equiv 1\pmod{30}.$
Show if $m\equiv 1\pmod{6}$ and $m\equiv -1\pmod{5}$ then $m\equiv 19\pmod{30}.$
The first follows since $6\mid m-1$ and $5\mid m-1$ and $\gcd(6,5)=1$ means $30=6\cdot 5\mid m-1.$
The second is is an application of Chinese remainder theorem.
You actually can get the stronger result, that $p^2\equiv 1\pmod{24},$ when $\gcd(p,6)=1,$ and hence:
This is not just true for primes $p>5,$ but for any integer $p$ with $\gcd(p,30)=1.$