can u help me? anybody can exlpanie me about the proof of the monotonic
() is a monotonic
If ≤ , so () ≤ ().
Take = where ≥ 1, so,
() = inf{: ( > ) ≤ }
() = inf{: ( > ) ≤ }
= inf{: ( > y/c ) ≤ }
= inf{: ( > ) ≤ } (assume y/c = )
= inf{: ( > ) ≤ }
= ().
If I take != , how come the () is a monotonic?
The conclusion follows quite directly from the definitions. Let $X\leq Y$ be two stochastic variables. Then, for each $c \in \mathbb{R}$ we have that $P(X>c) \leq P(Y>c)$.
Fixing $c^{*} = \inf\{c \in \mathbb{R} | P(X>c) \leq{\alpha}\} := VaR_{\alpha}(X)$ and using the fact that $P(Y> c^{*}) \geq P(X>c^{*})$, the conclusion follows.