While verifying my answer to another question, I came across a problem of binomial coefficients:
Does $\hspace{.2cm}\displaystyle \prod_{k=1}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}{k}=\prod_{k=1}^{n-1}k^{2k-n}$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}^+?$
I offer a proof by induction below, but I would appreciate references or alternative approaches.
Well, in each term of your product, the numerator is $(n-1)!$. Thus, the "total" numerator is $$\left((n-1)!\right)^{n-1}=\prod_{1}^{n-1}k^{n-1}$$
As for the denominator, each individual denominator is a product of 2 factorials, the argument of first factorial "grows" from $0$ to $(n-1)$, the argument of the second one "grows smaller" from $n-1$ to $0$. Thus, each argument appears exactly two times, and we have $\left(\prod_1^{n-1}k!\right)^2$. Note that in $\left(\prod_1^{n-1}k!\right)$ we come across number $k$ $n-k$ times, thus our denominator is $$\left(\prod_1^{n-1}k!\right)^2 = \prod_1^{n-1}k^{2(n-k)}$$
Trivial division allows to conclude. I favour this kind of proofs because you make virtually no formula manipulation, almost impossible to get it wrong.