I need help with setting up a homework problem. I am having trouble finding where to start.
Problem: Suppose A is a set. Show that $i_A$ is the only relation on A that is both an equivalence relation on A and also a function from A to A.
First of all I'm not very clear what $i_A$ is. I think its a relation $_AR_A$? I'm really having trouble with the intuition behind proofs such as this. What proof strategy do I normally use to prove that ONLY ONE thing satisfies my conditions? Should I start my proof with $i_A$ or with the part about equivalence relation and function?
I'm also not very clear on what an equivalence relation is. I know that it has to be transitive, symmetric, and reflexive... but how does that help me?
I really want to learn all of this proof based math stuff but it is very counter intuitive to me.
I would guess $i_{A}$ is the identity function: $i : A \to A$ where $i(a) = a$ for every $a \in A$.
So an equivalence relation partitions elements up into equivalence classes. That is $i, j$ are in the same equivalence class if and only if $iRj$. In order for $R$ to be a function, it has to map each $a \in A$ to a unique $b \in A$. So if an equivalence class $[a]$ has more than one element, then $a \mapsto [a]$ (where $[a]$ denotes the equivalence class of $a$, or $[a] = \{ x \in A: aRx \}$) is not a function.
Now to prove this, we suppose to the contrary that there exists an equivalence relation $R$ that is not the identity mapping and is a function. From what I discussed above, $R$ must relate $a$ to a unique element $b \in A$ in order to be a function. By reflexivity, $aRa$. Suppose $b \neq a$. Then $aRb \implies |[a]| > 1$; that is, $R$ maps $a$ to at least two elements, which contradicts the assumption that $R$ is a function. As $a \in [a]$ for every $a \in A$, we have that $R$ must be $i_{A}$.