I have this proposition, and I have two questions:
1) Why $H_k=\text{Im} i_*\oplus \ker r_*$ ?
2) Why $j_*: \ker r_*\rightarrow H_k(X,A)$ ?

Edit:
For the second, I try the 1th theorem of isomorphism, and I found that there is an isomorphism between $H_k(X)/\ker j∗$ and $H_k(X,A)$, and I don't know how to appear $\ker r∗$ in the place of $H_k(X)/\ker j∗$.
This is an application of a result of homological algebra which is:
If $0\to N\stackrel{i}{\to} M\stackrel{j}\to P\to 0$ is an exact sequence and $r:M\to N$ such that $r\circ i=id_{N}$ then $\ker r\simeq P$ and $\text{Im}(i)\simeq N$, and $M=\text{Im}(i)\oplus \ker r \simeq N\oplus P$.
Proof:
Because $i$ is injective we have $\text{Im}(i)\simeq N$.
For $\ker r \simeq P$ it suffice to show that $j:\ker r\to P$ is an isomorphism: if $x\in \ker r$ such that $j(x)=0$ then $x\text{Im}(i)$ hence there exists $y\in N$ such that $x=i(y)$, but $y=r(i(y))=r(x)=0$. for the surjectivity, let $z\in P$, there exists $x\in M$ such that $y=j(x)$ set $x'=i(r(x))$, we have $r(x-x')=r(x)-r(i(r(x)))=r(x)-r(x)=0$, hence $x-x'\in \ker r$ and $j(x-x')=j(x)-j(i(r(x)))=j(x)=z$.
For $M=\text{Im}(i)\oplus \ker r$: let $y\in \text{Im}(i)\cap \ker r$ then there exists $x\in N$ such that $y=i(x)$ , sa $0=r(y)=r(i(x))=x$ we have $y=i(x)=i(0)=0$.
Let $y\in M$, and set $x=r(y)$, we have $x=i(r(y))\in \text{Im}(i)$ we have $r(y-x)=r(y)-r(i(r(y)))=r(y)-r(y)=0$, then $z=y-x\in \ker r$, now we get $yx+z$ with $x\in \text{Im}(i)$ and $z\in \ker r$.