Let a,b $\in$ $\mathbb{Z}$. Obviously, a counterexample can disprove this statement.
I tried this approach to seek another method (possibly proof by contradiction):
$a|b!$
$a|[b(b-1)!]$
If $gcd(a,(b-1)!)=1$, then $a|b$ and hence: $a \le b$.
But I think claiming that $a|b$ is too restrictive because $a$ can be less than $b$ without having $a|b$ necessarily.
I tried to study two cases to reach a contradiction that $gcd(a,(b-1)!)\not=1$, yet I couldn't figure out how to continue so this might actually help out :
1) $a=b$
2) $a \lt b$
Is there any mistake that I have done? Is this proof inconclusive or are there any improvements to be made so that it is a valid proof?
Thank you in advance
EDIT: Counterexamples most certainly get the job done here. Though, I am seeking another method to disprove the statement.
EDIT 2: The original proposition is: $$a \le b \Rightarrow b! \equiv 0 \pmod a$$
I am trying to justify whether the converse of this statement is right or wrong, which is obviously wrong using counterexamples. The purpose is to find another method to disprove the converse.
I think there's no point to try and prove a false statement. Because $15|5!$ for example.
What is a true version of this statement is $$a|b! \implies \text{prime factors of }a \le b$$ You can try and prove this!
Update: I understood you seek to prove it without using counterexamples, so let's try:
Let $p$ and $q$ be prime numbers where $p > q$, we have $pq|p!$ while $pq >p$
Another update: in your solution of "disproving the statement" you suggested that $\gcd(a,(b-1)!)=1$ while $a \le b$. Well if $a<b$ we have $a|(b-1)!$ so this directly means $a=b$ and this is something you wouldn't want as a step in disproving the statement. So the thing you'd first try is finding $a>b$ and $a|b!$, and I've given that in my first update.