I have the following basic issue:
Let $X$ be an affine variety in $\mathbb{A}_{k}^ {n}$. Co-ordinate ring of $X$ be $A(X):= k[x_1,\ldots ,x_n]/I(X)$ whereas $K(X)$ be its quotient field. $$ \mathcal{O}_{X,p}:=\{f/g :g(p)\neq0; f,g\in A(X)\} \\ \mathcal{O}_{X}(U):= \bigcap_{p \in U} \mathcal{O}_{X,p}$$ Where $\mathcal{O}_{X}(U)$ be known as the regular functions on open subset $U$.
Now consider the proof of following proposition: A set map $\phi:U \rightarrow k$ is regular, then for each $p \in U$ it has a neighborhood $V$ such that there are $f,g \in k[x_1, \ldots ,x_n]$ with $g(q)\neq 0$ and $\phi (q)= f(q)/g(q) \; \; \forall q \in V$
By definition $\phi \in \mathcal{O}_{X}(U) \implies \phi \in \mathcal{O}_{X,p}\;\; \forall p\in U$. Hence $\phi(p)=f_{p}(p)/g_{p}(q)$[Here the subscripted $p$ is for indexing the representation at a point $p$]. I can also find a neighborhood $V_{p}$ where $g_{p}(q)\neq 0$. But how do I relate representation of $\phi$ at $p$ with representation at another point $q\in V_{p}$? It might happen that $\phi (q)= f_{q}(q)/g_{q}(q)\neq f_{p}(q)/g_{p}(q).$
No, this is not possible. Remember that $\phi(x)=f_p(x)/g_p(x)$ on the open neighborhood $V_p$, and $\phi(x)=f_q(x)/g_q(x)$ on the open neighborhood $V_q$. So $\frac{f_p(x)}{g_p(x)}=\frac{f_q(x)}{g_q(x)}$ on $V_p\cap V_q$.