I am trying to prove by mathematical induction $2\times1!+5\times2!+10\times3!+...+(n^2+1)n!=n(n+1)!$ for all positive integers $n$.
So far I have:
Solved in the first case possible - $1$
Assumed the function to be true for all positive integers
- Subbed in $k+1$ for $n$ leaving me with the following $$((k+1)^2+1)(k+1)!=(k+1)(k+2)!$$
I am unsure where to go from here? Any help would be greatly appreciated!
you have your base case:
Assume:
$2\times1!+5\times2!+10\times3!+...+(n^2+1)n!=n(n+1)!$
We must show that
$2\times1!+\cdots+(n^2+1)n! + ((n+1)^2 + 1)(n+1)!=(n+1)(n+2)!$
$n(n+1)! + ((n+1)^2 + 1)(n+1)!$
By the inductive hypothesis.
$((n+1)^2+ n + 1)(n+1)!\\ (n^2 + 3n + 2)(n+1)!\\ (n+1)(n+2)(n+1)!\\ (n+1)(n+2)!$