Suppose events A and $B_1$, A and $B_2$ are independent, the events $B_1$ and $B_2$ are disjoint.Prove that the events A and $B$$ \cup$$B_2$ are independent.
I know $B_1\cap B_2=0$, $P(A\cap B_1)=P(A)*P(B_1)$, $P(A\cap B_2)=P(A)*P(B_2)$ now. My attempt:
I try to prove that $P(A) * P(B_1\cup B_2)=P(A \cap (B_1\cup B_2))$
$P(A) * P(B_1 \cup B_2)$
$=P(A)*(P(B_1)+P(B_2)-0)$
$=P(A\cap B_1)+P(A\cap B_2)$ ...
Thank you.
$$P(A\cap(B_1\cup B_2))=P((A\cap B_1)\cup (A\cap B_2))=$$ $$=P(A\cap B_1)+P(A\cap B_2)$$
because if $B_1$ and $B_2$ are disjoint then $A\cap B_1$ and $A\cap B_2$ are also disjoint. Then
$$P(A\cap B_1)+P(A\cap B_2)=P(A)(P(B_1)+P(B_2))$$ because of the hypothetical independence. And finally
$$P(B_1)+P(B_2)=P(B_1\cup B_2)$$
because $B_1$ and $B_2$ are disjoint.
SO we proved that
$$P(A\cap(B_1\cup B_2))=P(A)P(B_1\cup B_2).$$