I would appreciate feedback on the correctness of this proof, as well as alternative proofs.
Prove: A is invertible IFF 0 is not an eigenvalue of A.
Proof:If $A$ is invertible, letting $λ=0$ yields $Ax-λx=Ax=0$ which implies that $x=0$. So, $0$ is not an eigenvalue. If $0$ is not an eigenvalue then there is no non-zero $x$ such that $Ax=0$, and because there is only the trivial solution, A must be invertible.
You might want to explore the fact that $det(A) = p(0)$, where $p(x)$ is the characteristic polynomial of $A$.