For a number sequence $\{y_n\}$ we know that $y_{n+1} = 2y_n-y^2_n$
If: $0<y_0<1$ show that $0<y_n<1$ for all integers $n>0$
I've tried solving the recurrence relation, but I couldn't solve the inhomogenous part. Anyway, I thought that maybe I didn't need to solve it to figure it out and so I though if I showed that when:
$y_0 = 0 \implies y_1 = 2\times0-0^2 = 0$
and $y_0 = 1 \implies y_1 = 2\times1-1^2 = 1$
Is this really enough for proof for the statement?
By the AM-GM inequality, given that $x\in[0,2]$, $$ x(2-x)\leq\left(\frac{x+(2-x)}{2}\right)^2 = 1, $$ and equality holds only if $x=1$. This gives that if $y_0\in (0,1)$, $y_n\in(0,1)$ holds by induction.