I am trying to prove that in the equation: $$F_{i,n} = \prod_{0}^{n-1}_{−(+1)}_{−}$$ as $i > n$, $i > 1$, $n \ge 1$, $n \longrightarrow \infty$ and $_{−} \longrightarrow 0$, $$F \longrightarrow 0$$ as well.
In the aformentioned equation, P is a real number (actually probability of something), raning from 0 to 1.
Any idea how I might be able to prove the theory in mathematics apart from proving it based on empirical results?
P.S. I am a Research Scientist with Computer Science background, lacking knowledge in theoretical mathematics. So any help related to this topic would help. Thank you in advance. With Regards, http://somdipdey.co.uk/