I was given a task to construct a Hilbert-style proof for the following:
$A → B ⊢ C ∨ A → C ∨ B$
I figured I could use the axiom $A→B≡A∨B≡B$, but this leads me nowhere since I don't think I can use the consequent anywhere.
The theorem is intuitively true to me (since we know $A→B$, adding a true $C$ in there will give $⊤→⊤$, obviously true, and a false $C$ gives the original $A→B$), but I do not know how to prove this.
I'm using Tourlakis' Mathematical Logic and all axioms contained within it.
Here are the relevant Hilbert Axiom Schemas...(your book may label them differently, or treat disjunction as a substitution.)
$$\begin{array}{rl}\mathrm A2.&\phi\to(\psi\to\phi) \\ \mathrm A3.&(\phi\to(\psi\to\xi))\to((\phi\to\psi)\to(\phi\to\xi)) \\ \lor\mathrm {IL}.&\phi\to(\phi\lor\psi) \\ \lor\mathrm {IR}.&\phi\to(\psi\lor\phi) \\ \lor\mathrm E.&(\phi\to\xi)\to((\phi\to\xi)\to((\phi\lor\psi)\to\xi)) \\\hdashline \mathrm P1.&A\to B \\\hline 2.&\lower{2ex}\ddots\end{array}$$