$$ \exists x (P(x) \lor Q(x)) ≡ \exists x P(x) \lor \exists x Q(x) $$
I have to prove this. I'm extremely new and yet to grasp the whole tautology logics. I believe, that $$ \exists x P(x) \lor \exists x Q(x) $$ requirement is that all integers are even OR all integers are odd (I'm using integers as a universe of discourse), but for $$ \exists x (P(x) \lor Q(x)) $$ For all $x$ where $x$ is an integers, $x$ is even OR $x$ is odd. I don't know how to further prove the whole statement, what could be the further proof of equivalency?
$∃xP(x) \lor ∃xQ(x)$ implies
(a) $∃x=x_1$ s.t. $P(x_1) \implies P(x_1) \lor Q(x_1) \implies ∃x(P(x) \lor Q(x))$ (namely, for $x=x_1$)
OR
(b) $∃x=x_2$ s.t. $Q(x_2) \implies P(x_2) \lor Q(x_2) \implies ∃x(P(x) \lor Q(x))$ (namely, for $x=x_2$).