I found this example, and I was wondering how would you prove these kinds of problems?
I thought of proving using $\left(\binom{n-1}{k+1}\right)+\left(\binom{n-1}{k}\right)=\left(\binom{n}{k}\right)$ for pascal triangle
but then again I thought this would be proved by induction.
just overall confused
From the definition of binomial coefficients: $$ \binom{n}{2} = \frac{n(n-1)}2 $$ so $$ 2\binom{n}{2} = n^2-n. $$ Similarly: $$ \binom{n}{1} = n $$ Adding it up, you get what you need.