if $a,b,c$ are real numbers and $$\frac{a}{b-c}+\frac{b}{c-a}+\frac{c}{a-b}=0$$ Prove $$\frac{a}{(b-c)^2}+\frac{b}{(c-a)^2}+\frac{c}{(a-b)^2}=0$$
things i have done: using the assumption i deduced that $$\frac{a}{b-c}=-\frac{(b-c)(a-b-c)}{(c-a)(a-b)}\rightarrow\frac{a}{(b-c)^2}=\frac{(c+b-a)}{(c-a)(a-b)}$$
So some rewriting $$\frac{(c+b-a)}{(c-a)(a-b)}+\frac{b}{(c-a)^2}+\frac{c}{(a-b)^2} =\frac{(c+b-a)(c-a)(a-b)+b(a-b)^2+a(c-a)^2}{(c-a)^2(a-b)^2}$$
I tried to write numerator in expanded form but it was to large and it seemed like there was not going to be something useful after factoring. so is there any better way than my brute force ? can my solution get continued?
$$\left(\frac a{b-c}+\frac b{c-a}+\frac c{a-b}\right)\left(\frac1{b-c}+\frac1{c-a}+\frac1{a-b}\right)$$
$$=\sum\frac a{(b-c)^2}+\sum\frac b{c-a}\left(\frac1{b-c}+\frac1{a-b}\right)$$
$$=\sum\frac a{(b-c)^2}-\sum\frac b{c-a}\left(\frac{c-a}{(b-c)(a-b)}\right)$$
$$=\sum\frac a{(b-c)^2}-\frac{\sum b(c-a)}{(b-c)(a-b)(c-a)}$$
Now, $\displaystyle\frac{\sum b(c-a)}{(b-c)(a-b)(c-a)}=0$