Multiply both sides of $x\ge y$ by $p2$, use $p2=1-p1$, then move the $p1$ term to the other side.
$$x\ge y\\
p2*x\ge p2*y\\
(1-p1)*x\ge p2*y\\
x-p1*x\ge p2*y\\
x\ge p1*x+p2*y
$$
0
Bumbble Comm
On
the given inequality is equivalent to $$(x-y)(1-p_1)\geq 0$$ and this is true, since $$x\geq y$$ and $$1-p_1=p_2\geq 0$$
Multiply both sides of $x\ge y$ by $p2$, use $p2=1-p1$, then move the $p1$ term to the other side. $$x\ge y\\ p2*x\ge p2*y\\ (1-p1)*x\ge p2*y\\ x-p1*x\ge p2*y\\ x\ge p1*x+p2*y $$