The following question is from Linear Operators edited by Nelson Dunford and Jacob T. Schwartz, Chapter VII.8, Problem 7.
Given a banach space $X$ and a bounded operator $T \in B(X)$, we assume $0$ is an isolated point in $\sigma(T)$ and also a pole of the function $(\lambda - T)^{-1}$ that is analytic in a neighborhood of $0$ (but not analytic at $0$). Assume there exists $K \in \mathbb{R}$ such that for small enough $\epsilon > 0$ we have $\,\|\lambda\,(\lambda - T)^{-1}\,\| \leq K\,\forall\,\vert\lambda\vert \in (0, \epsilon)$. Then show that $\lambda\,(\lambda - T)^{-1}$ converge to the projection $E[0] = \chi_{\{0\}}(T)$ in operator norm as $\lambda$ approaches $0$.
This is my attempt. Since $\,\|\lambda^2(\lambda - T)^{-1}\,\|\rightarrow 0$ as $\lambda \rightarrow 0$, then if let $C_{\epsilon}$ be the boundary of the open disk $\{\vert\lambda\vert < \epsilon\}$, then we have the norm of $\int_{C_{\epsilon}}\lambda^2(\lambda -T)^{-1}d\lambda = T^2E[0]$ can be arbitraily small as $\epsilon$ approaches $0$ and hence $T^2E[0] = 0$. Then the order of $0$ as a pole of $(\lambda - T)^{-1}$ is at most $2$. Since $\|\,\lambda(\lambda - T)^{-1}\,\|$ is bounded near $0$ the order of $0$ as a pole of $(\lambda - T)^{-1}$ can only be $1$. Then I cannot proceed. If the conclusion is true then $TE[0]$ is indeed $0$ but I do not know how to prove it...
Any hints will be appreciated. Now for a pole $\lambda$ of an operator $T$ (an isolated point in $\sigma(T)$ and a pole of the function $(\lambda - T)^{-1}$ that is analytic near $\lambda$, let the least integer $n$ such that $(\lambda - T)^n\,E[\lambda] = 0$ while $(\lambda - T)^{n-1}\,E[\lambda] \neq 0$ be the order of a pole(here is $\lambda$). If we let $g$ be a $B(X)$-valued function defined on $\mathbb{C}$, analytic near a complex number $\lambda$ but has it as a pole of order $n$, can I write $g(x) = \frac{1}{(x - \lambda)^n}f(x)$ when $x$ is near $\lambda$?
Once you know that you have a single-order pole, then $$ TE[0]=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{C} \lambda(\lambda-T)^{-1}d\lambda = 0. $$ This is because you can shrink the contour around $\lambda=0$, while $\lambda(\lambda-T)^{-1}$ remains bounded, the length of the contour tends to $0$.