($\mathbb{N}$ does not contain 0 in this case)
How can I prove this? It feels intuitive and seems to be right. Sadly, I got no idea how to approach this proof. Can someone give me advice? There is a tip on the worksheet, which may be used:
$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(\log{x})^k}{x}=0$
Thanks in advance!