Sorry I'm not sure how do the symbols such as the same as or powers. This is probably a very easy question but I can only think of proving it by proof of exhaustion. However as $n$ is basically infinite above $2$ I don't think this is right.
Thanks for any help!
You can take a factor from $(n-2)!$ likes the following: $$(n-2)! + (n-1)! + n! = (n-2)!(1 + (n-1) + (n-1)\times n) = (n-2)!(1 + (n-1)\times(n+1)) = (n-2)!(1 + n^2 - 1) = (n-2)! n^2$$