Let $p$ and $q$ be $2$ distinct odd prime numbers
Prove $(p-1)^{q-1}\equiv (q-1)^{p-1} \pmod{pq}$
Given :
- $\gcd(p, q-1) = 1$
- $\gcd(q, p-1) = 1$
So far I have:
$(p-1)^{q-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{q}$
$(q-1)^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$
using CRT: $(q-1)^{p-1} +(p-1)^{q-1} \pmod{pq} \equiv 1$
Please help, I know I need to use FLT but I'm not sure how to solve it.
Since the statement is not true for when $GCD(p,q-1) \not = 1$ (counterexample using $7,3$). I am assuming that what is "given" is a part of the criteria for the presented identity and not a part of the solution.
By FLT we have $$(p-1)^{q-1} ≡ 1 \mod(q)$$ $$(q-1)^{p-1} ≡ 1 \mod(p)$$
Also by binomial expansion we note that $$ (p-1)^{q-1} = p(\text{some terms here}) + 1^{q-1} \equiv 1 \mod (p)$$ $$(q-1)^{p-1} = q(\text{some terms here}) + 1^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod (q)$$
Now this means $(p-1)^{q-1} = kpq + 1$ and $(q-1)^{p-1} = kpq + 1$ which implies that $$(p-1)^{q-1} \equiv 1 \equiv (q-1)^{p-1} \mod(pq)$$