Hey guys, so $P(A) = 0.8$ and $P(B) = 0.6$. Since we know $P(A \cup B) \leq 1$ then if we add $P(A) + P(B)$ we get $1$.
So because it exceeds 1, that means $A$ and $B$ are NOT mutually exclusive? Is that right? And since they are not mutually exclusive, that means we can use the property: $$P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A\cap B)$$
So $$1.4 - P(A\cap B) \leq 1$$ $$-P(A\cap B) \leq -.4$$ $$P(A \cap B) \geq .4$$
Is my proof correct?
If not, please explain how I should approach this problem.

You can't conclude $P(A)+P(B)=1$ from $P(A \cup B) \leq 1$.
This is correct, but an unnecessary step.
This property is always true for any events $A$ and $B$, regardless of whether $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive. Your proof should start with this property, and the fact that $P(A \cup B) \leq 1$, and then the rest of your proof is correct.