Evaluate if the following series is convergent or divergent: $\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty \frac {1} {n\ln(n)\ln\ln{n}}$.
I cannot properly understand the notation that the book employs here $\ln\ln(x)$, but I guess it is referring to $\ln(\ln(x))$. Assuming $\ln \ln(x)=\ln(\ln(x))$,
I used the Weierstrass's or comparasion test to evaluate the series:
$$\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty \frac {1} {n\ln(n)\ln\ln{n}}<\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty \frac {1} {n\ln(n)\ln(n)}=\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty \frac {1} {n\ln^2{n}}<\sum_\limits{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2},$$ proving the series converge. However the solution point out the series diverge.
I have already proved the convergence $\sum_\limits{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}$.
Question:
What am I doing wrong? How can I prove the series diverge? Is $\ln\ln(x)=\ln(\ln(x))$ meant by the author of the book?
Your series diverges by the integral test, because$$\int\frac1{x\log(x)\log\bigl(\log(x)\bigr)}\,\mathrm dx=\log\bigl(\log\bigl(\log(x)\bigr)\bigr)$$and because $\lim_{x\to+\infty}\log\bigl(\log\bigl(\log(x)\bigr)\bigr)=+\infty$.
Concerning your approach, note that the inequality $\frac1{n\ln^2n}<\frac1{n^2}$ is false. Actually, $n\ln^2n<n^2$.