There is a poset $(P, \sqsubseteq )$, and let $A \subseteq B \subseteq C \subseteq P$ , $\qquad$ Also given is Sup$(A)$ and Sup$(C)$ exist, and Sup$(A)$ = Sup$(C)$.
I have to prove that Sup$(B)$ exists and Sup$(B)$ = Sup$(A)$.
My Work:-
Let $x \in A$ , So then $x \sqsubseteq$ sup$(A)$
As $x \in A$ then $x \in B$, $x \in C$ because $A \subseteq B \subseteq C$
so it means $x \sqsubseteq$ Sup$(C)$
Now same $x$ is in $B$ and as we have proved that it has Sup$(A)$ and Sup$(C)$, So obviously it has a Supremum in $B$ as well, Hence Sup$(B)$ exists.
And also obviously for the same element Sup$(A)$ = Sup$(C)$ , so Sup$(B)$ would also be same.
Query:- I am not sure If I have proved it in a correct way. If anybody has a comment or hint to solve this then please share it.
It does not look right to me. Yes it looks obvious but you have to prove it and that is the point of the question.
Suppose $Sup(B)$ does not exist.
Then for all $x\in B$, we also have $x\in C$ since $B \subseteq C$, so $x \sqsubseteq Sup(C)$.
Since $Sup(B)$ does not exist we can find a $y$ that $x\sqsubseteq y\sqsubseteq Sup(C)$ for all $x\in B$.
Now consider $A$, for all $z\in A$, we also have $z\in B$ and therefore $z \sqsubseteq y\sqsubseteq Sup(C)=Sup(A)$ contradiction.
Hence $Sup(B)$ exist. The other part is easy, since $Sup(B)$ exist it must be at least $Sup(A)$ and at most $Sup(C)$ so it must be equal to them.