I want to know if my answer is correct:
1) For n=1: $ 1=1$ Correct!
2) Let n=k is an inductive assumption which is correct:
$$\frac{1}{k^k}\leq \frac{1}{k!}$$
3) For n=k+1, we should prove that:
$$\frac{1}{(k+1)^{k+1}}\leq \frac{1}{(k+1)!}$$
So,
$$\frac{1}{(k+1)!}=
\frac{1}{(k+1)k!}\geq
\frac{1}{(k+1)k^k}\geq
\frac{1}{(k+1)(k+1)^k}=
\frac{1}{(k+1)^{k+1}}$$
It's correct also for $n=k+1$, so the inequality $1/(k+1)^{k+1}\leq1/(k+1)!$ is correct for every number $n\geq1$
Your answer is correct! I see nothing wrong with it as far as I know about mathematical induction. Keep up the good work!