I was checking the following Fermat's theorem exercise:
Prove that $11^{16} + 16^{11} \equiv 0 \mod {17}$
Because both $11$ and $16$ are primes with $17$ I applied the theorem individually, so the first one
$$11^{16}\equiv 1 \mod {17}$$
gives me a result directly.
But the after applying the theorem to the second one
$$16^{16} \equiv 1 \mod {17}$$
I don't know the way to go back in the power from $16$ to $11$ which is the number requested. Is that as easy as $16 \equiv -1 \mod {17}$? Any help will be really appreciated.
First of all, the Fermat's theorem states that $a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod p$ if $p$ is a prime and $p \nmid a$. There is a condition on the exponent. Certainly $11^{16}$ simplifies to $1$ mod $17$ using this theorem.
For the other term, you cannot apply Fermat's theorem, because the exponent is $11$, which although prime is not $17-1$. However, the fact that $16 \equiv -1 \mod 17$, tells you that $16^{11} \equiv (-1)^{11} \equiv -1$ mod $17$. Now you can combine the two terms and conclude.