Show that $$a_1!a_2!\cdots a_m! \mid \left(a_1+a_2+...+a_m\right)! \forall a_1,a_2,...,a_m\in N$$
Case 1 $m=2$. We need to prove $$a_1!a_2!\mid (a_1+a_2)!$$
$a_1+a_2=1$ and $a_1+a_2=2$. It is obvious
$a+b=n (n\in \text{N and } a+b\le n).$
We will prove in $$a+b=n+1$$
By assuming of the induction $$(a_1!(a_2-1)!)\mid(a_1+a_2-1)!$$
And $$(a_2!(a_1-1)!)\mid(a_1+a_2-1)!$$
$$\rightarrow (a_1!a_2!)\mid (a_1+a_2)(a_1+a_2-1)!$$
Or $$\rightarrow (a_1!a_2!)\mid (a_1+a_2)!$$
Case 2 $m=k$
We will prove in $m=k+1$
I am stuck here. Can I prove it as with the case $m = 2?$, help me.
By the $m=2$ case: $$ a_1!(a_2+\ldots+a_{n+1})!\,\vert\, (a_1+a_2+\ldots+a_{n+1})!, $$ and by the inductive hypothesis for $m=n$, $$ a_2!\ldots a_{n+1}!\vert (a_2+\ldots+a_{n+1})!. $$ Putting these together gives the $n+1$ case.