It's inspired by a general result proposed in a book (Dictionary of inequalities second edition by Peter Bullen p.101) related to composition of function :
In fact we have $x\in[0,1)$:
$$\arctan(\operatorname{arctanh}(x))\geq \operatorname{arctanh}(\arctan(x))\quad (1)$$
To prove it I have introduced a function :
$$f(x)=\arctan(\operatorname{arctanh}(x))-\operatorname{arctanh}(\arctan(x))$$
We differentiate to get:
$$f'(x)= -\frac{1}{((x^2-1)(\operatorname{arctanh}^2(x)+1))}+\frac{1}{((x^2+1)(\arctan^2(x)-1))}$$
And then I use :
Let $0\leq x <1$ then we have :
$$\operatorname{arctanh}(x)\geq x \geq \arctan(x)$$
Then I cannot conclude directly .
Question :
How to prove $(1)$ ?
Thanks in advance !
MacLaurin expansion $$\arctan\left(\operatorname{arctanh} x\right)=x+\frac{x^5}{15}+\frac{x^7}{45}+\frac{64 x^9}{2835}+\frac{71 x^{11}}{4725}+\frac{5209 x^{13}}{405405}+\frac{2203328 x^{15}}{212837625}+\ldots$$ All coefficients of the series are positive $$\operatorname{arctanh}\left(\arctan x\right)=x+\frac{x^5}{15}-\frac{x^7}{45}+\frac{64 x^9}{2835}-\frac{71 x^{11}}{4725}+\frac{5209 x^{13}}{405405}-\frac{2203328 x^{15}}{212837625}+\ldots$$ Coefficients have the same absolute value as the previous series, but alternating signs from $5$th degree on.
Thus for $x\in[0,1)$ $$\arctan\left(\operatorname{arctanh} x\right)\ge \operatorname{arctanh}\left(\arctan x\right)$$ while for $x\in(-1,0]$ the opposite happens.