I'm reading a book that claims that $\binom{n}{0}+\binom{n}{1}+\dots+\binom{n}{n}=2^{n}$
Is there a easy proof for this?
I'm reading a book that claims that $\binom{n}{0}+\binom{n}{1}+\dots+\binom{n}{n}=2^{n}$
Is there a easy proof for this?
On
$$(1+x)^n=^nC_0+^nC_1x+^nC_2x^2+........^nC_n(x)^n\tag{Binomial Expansion}$$ Just put $x=1$ and Tada!
On
Say you have a set of objects of two types, say red and blue balls, otherwise indistinguishable. In how many ways can you take $n$ of them and arrange them? The classic answer is your RHS, $2^n $. But you can also think of it like this: there are $\binom{n}{0}$ ways to have $0$ red balls in our collection, $\binom{n}{1}$ ways to have $1$ red ball in it, ... , $\binom{n}{n}$ ways to have $n $ red balls in it. So the answer is the sum of all of these, i.e. your LHS, too, hence the equality holds.
We can use the binomial theorem, which states that $$ (x+y)^n = {n \choose 0}x^n y^0 + {n \choose 1}x^{n-1}y^1 + {n \choose 2}x^{n-2}y^2 + \cdots + {n \choose n-1}x^1 y^{n-1} + {n \choose n}x^0 y^n. $$ Set $x=1$ and $y=1$ to obtain the result.