Let $\cosh(x) = \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{2}$. Prove that $\cosh(x):[0,\infty)\rightarrow[1,\infty)$ is bijective
How do I do this?
So to prove that it is surjective:
$\cosh(x)=y,\quad \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{2} = y,\quad x =\ln(y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1})$
and then I plug this into the function:
$$\cosh(\ln(y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1})) = \frac{e^{\ln(y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1})} + e^{-\ln(y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1})}}{2}$$
If I'm not mistaken, this can be written as $$\frac{y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1} -(y\pm\sqrt{y^2 + 1})}{2}$$ and isn't this just $0$?
Shouldn't I be showing that it is equal to $y$?
I think I got a hold of how to show that it is injective, but surjective - no.
You are on the right track. Just consider as inverse map of $\cosh:[0,\infty)\rightarrow[1,\infty)$, the map $$g(y)=\ln(y+\sqrt{y^2 + 1}).$$ The one with the minus sign is not defined (the argument of $\ln$ is not positive).