How to prove that $f : x \mapsto \frac{x}{\exp(x)-1}, \ x\neq 0$, and $1$ if $x=0$ is $\mathcal{C}^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$.
For $x\neq 0$ , $f'(x)=\frac{\exp(x)-1-x\exp(x)}{(\exp(x)-1)^2}$, so we can extend $f'$ to $0$ taking : $f'(0)=-\frac{1}{2}$. Then we can conclude that $f \in \mathcal{C}^1(\mathbb{R})$.
Now maybe an induction could work but the calculation of the successive derivatives seems tricky.
Thanks in advance !
A possible approach is the following. Consider the function $g=1/f$, and use the Taylor expansion of the exponential function. The remark the derivatives of $g$ at zero are never equal to zero, and conclude that $f$ is infinitely often differentiable at zero.