I have shown that this is true for $x \in \mathbb Q$. We define $a^x = \sup \{x^p : p \in \mathbb Q, p < x\}$. I let $S(a) = \{a^p: p \in \mathbb Q, p < x\}$. And so by definition. $a^x = \sup S(a), b^x = \sup S(b)$.
Suppose $a<b$.
Suppose $a^x > b^x$. Then, $\sup S(a) > \sup S(b)$. There must exist a $a^p, p \in \mathbb Q, p < x$ such that $a^p > \sup S(b)$. Else, $\sup S(b)$ would be an upper bound for $S(a)$ that is less than $\sup S(a)$. However, $b^p \in S(b)$ by definition of $S(b)$. But as the proposition is true for rational $x$, then $b^p > a^p$, which contradicts $a^p$ being an upper bound. Hence, $a^x \le b^x$.
From here, I can't find a way to derive a contradiction from $a^x = b^x$.
May I suggest the following approach: it would first be very helpful to establish the algebraic relation $(uv)^x=u^x v^x$, for any $u, v>0$ and $x \in \mathbb{R}$. This can be easily done from the definition, exploiting the fact that:
Once you have achieved this, you can write $b^x=\left(\frac{b}{a}\right)^xa^x$ and in order to prove your inequality it will suffice to show that for any $u>1$ and $x>0$ one has $u^x>1$. This should be rather straightforward from the definition.