Prove that if $f$ is increasing then so is $f^{-1}$, when $f$ is a one-to-one function.
I'm having trouble figuring out how to get started with this question. I'm assuming it has something to do with the definition of infectivity, but that's as far as i've gotten.
A non-derivative proof.
What we have is $\forall u,v. (u>v\implies f(u)>f(v))$.
We want to prove $\forall u,v. (f(u)>f(v)\implies u>v)$.
Suppose the opposite, that there exist $u_0,v_0$ such that $f(u_0)>f(v_0)$ is true and $u_0>v_0$ is false for the sake of contradiction.
Since $u_0>v_0$ is false, $u_0=v_0$ or $u_0<v_0$.
Case 1. $u_0=v_0$. Then $f(u_0)=f(v_0)$, contradiction.
Case 2. $u_0 < v_0$. Then since $\forall v,u. (v>u\implies f(v)>f(u))$, we have $f(v_0)>f(u_0)$, contradiction.
Hence there cannot exist such $u_0,v_0$.