From first sight I found this problem to be very easy, but then I got stuck! I tried the following:
$(I\cap \mathbb{Q}) \cap (J \cap \mathbb{Q}) = \emptyset$
$I\cap \mathbb{Q} \cap J \cap \mathbb{Q} = \emptyset$
$I \cap J \cap \mathbb{Q} = \emptyset$
If we introduce $\mathbb{I}$ such that $\mathbb{I}$ is the set of irrationals we get:
$I \cap J \cap \mathbb{Q} \cap \mathbb{I} = \emptyset \cap \mathbb{I}$
It here when realized that this gives me : $I \cap J \cap \emptyset = \emptyset \cap \mathbb{I}$ $\implies \emptyset = \emptyset$
Edit: I and J are open intervals.
Let $I, J$ be open intervals and suppose $(I\cap \mathbb{Q}) \cap (J \cap \mathbb{Q}) = \emptyset$.
We show that $I \cap J = \emptyset$ by contradiction. Suppose, for contradiction, that there is $x \in I\cap J$. Since $I$ (resp. $J$) is open, there is $\epsilon' > 0$ (resp. $\epsilon''$) such that the open neighbourhoud $]x - \epsilon' ; x + \epsilon' [$ is contained in $I$
(resp. $]x - \epsilon'' ; x + \epsilon'' [ \subset J$).
Now set $\epsilon := \min(\epsilon', \epsilon'')$. The open neighbourhoud $O :=]x - \epsilon ; x + \epsilon [$ is contained in $I \cap J$. Since every non-empty open interval of the reals contains an element from $\mathbb{Q}$, we get $O \cap \mathbb{Q} \neq \emptyset$ whence $I \cap J \cap \mathbb{Q} \neq \emptyset$, a contradiction.