We are basically being asked to prove that if the cardinality of set $\,X\,$ and set $\,Y\,$ is the same, then how can we prove that the cardinality of their power sets is also the same.
I have considered using the Schroder Bernstein theorem (If $\,A\,$ and $\,B\,$ are sets with $\,\left\lvert A\right\rvert \le \left\lvert B\right\rvert,\,$ and $\,\left\lvert B\right\rvert \le \left\lvert A\right\rvert,\,$ then $\,\left\lvert A\right\rvert = \left\lvert B\right\rvert.\,$ In other words, if there are one-to-one functions $\,f\,$ from $\,\left\lvert A\right\rvert\,$ to $\,\left\lvert B\right\rvert\,$ and $\,g\,$ from $\,\left\lvert B\right\rvert\,$ to $\,\left\lvert A\right\rvert,\,$ then there is a one-to-one correspondence between $\,A\,$ and $\,B$ ) but I am unsure of how to employ it in a formal proof.
We have a bijection $f$ from $A$ to $B$. What function comes to mind from $P(A)$ to $P(B)$?