This question inspired me to ask the following.
Prove that
$$I_n = \int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{x^n-1}\,dx = \left(\frac{\pi}{n\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{n}\right)}\right)^2,$$
for $\Re(n)>1$.
For some cases there is a nice specific form of $I_n$. For example
$$\begin{align} I_2 & = \frac{\pi^2}{4} \\ I_3 & = \frac{4\pi^2}{27} \\ I_4 & = \frac{\pi^2}{8} \\ I_5 & = \frac{2\left(5+\sqrt 5\right)\pi^2}{125} \\ I_6 & = \frac{\pi^2}{9} \\ I_7 & = \frac{2\pi^2}{49\left(1-\sin\left(\frac{3\pi}{14}\right)\right)} \\ I_8 & = \frac{\left(2+\sqrt 2\right)\pi^2}{32} \end{align}$$

$$ \begin{align} \int_0^\infty\frac{\log(x)}{x^n-1}\mathrm{d}x &=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{x}{e^{nx}-1}e^x\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\int_0^\infty\frac{x}{e^{nx}-1}e^x\,\mathrm{d}x+\int_0^\infty\frac{x}{1-e^{-nx}}e^{-x}\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\int_0^\infty x(e^{(1-n)x}+e^{(1-2n)x}+e^{(1-3n)x}+\dots)\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &+\int_0^\infty x(e^{-x}+e^{(-1-n)x}+e^{(-1-2n)x}+\dots)\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\frac1{(n-1)^2}+\frac1{(2n-1)^2}+\frac1{(3n-1)^2}+\dots\\ &+1+\frac1{(n+1)^2}+\frac1{(2n+1)^2}+\frac1{(3n+1)^2}+\dots\\ &=\frac1{n^2}\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac1{\left(k+\frac1n\right)^2}\\ &=\frac{\pi^2}{n^2}\csc^2\left(\frac\pi{n}\right) \end{align} $$ where the last step uses the derivative of $(7)$ from this answer