Trying to make sense out of the idea that $100\%$ continuous decay is $\frac{1}{e}$, I thought about this:
You can express $1+\frac{1}{x}$ as $\frac{x+1}{x}$, such that $\big(1+\frac{1}{x}\big)^x = \big(\frac{x+1}{x}\big)^x$
And you can express $1-\frac{1}{x}$ as $\frac{x-1}{x}$, such that $\big(1-\frac{1}{x}\big)^x = \big(\frac{x-1}{x}\big)^x =\frac{1}{\big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^x}$
Now $\big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^x$ and $\big(\frac{x+1}{x}\big)^x$ look very similar, and I can imagine (and see on Mathematica) that $\lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^x$ also approaches $e$.
However I'm clueless about limit proofs, how do you prove that?
EDIT: Just had a last second insight. Can you say that $$\lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^x = \lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^{x-1} \cdot \lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)$$ $$= \lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x}{x-1}\big)^{x-1} \cdot 1$$ $$=\lim_{x \to \infty} \big(\frac{x+1}{x}\big)^x = e ?$$
(not sure about that last limit transition...I mean I'm pretty sure it's true, just not sure how to write it; I would appreciate feedback on that, thank you)
For your second insight...
$$\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right)^{x}$$ You can split the limit into product terms if and only if the product terms both exist.
i.e., before splitting into a product, observe that $$\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right)^{x-1} = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{t+1}{t}\right)^{t}$$ using the substitution $t = x - 1$ (and as $x \to \infty$, intuitively, $t \to \infty$ as well). Obviously, this is equal to $e$.
Also observe that $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right) = 1$.
Because the product limits exist, $$\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right)^{x} = \left[ \lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right)^{x-1}\right]\left[ \lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\right)\right] = e \cdot 1 = e\text{.}$$