If we take the definitions of $\exp$ and $\ln$ as follows:
- $\exp(x) = {\large\sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty} \dfrac{x^i}{i!}$
- $\ln(x) = {\large\int_1^x} \dfrac1t\ dt$
how could we prove that these functions are inverses?
Neither $$\exp(\ln(x)) = \sum^\infty_{i=0}\frac{\left(\int_1^x\frac 1t\ dt\right)^i}{i!}$$ nor $$\ln(\exp(x)) = \int_1^{\sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty \frac{x^i}{i!}} \frac 1t\ dt$$
look at all feasible to me. Is there some theorem(s) that'd help make this a bit easier? Hints are welcome. :)
Here's a sketch of the proof:
1) $f(x) = \exp x$ is differentiable everywhere with $f'(x) = f(x)$.
2) $f$ is invertible.
3) The inverse $f^{-1}$ has $(f^{-1})'(f) = 1/f$.
4) $f^{-1}(x) = \log x$.