I'm a bit unsure of my reasoning here:
Clearly the proposition $P_2$ which states that $2^2>2+1$ is true.
Suppose that it holds true for $k^2>k+1$ where $k>2$.
We define $d_k=k^2-(k+1)=k^2-k-1$
Suppose we also have $(k+1)^2>(k+1)+1$.
As before we define $d_{k+1}=(k+1)^2-((k+1)+1)$
Now we have
$\begin{align} d_{k+1}=k^2+k-1&>k^2-k-1=d_k\\ 2k&>0 \end{align}$
which must be true since $k>2$.
My intuition was that by showing that the difference between the terms is increasing with each iteration, it would prove that the inequality must always hold. However I feel a bit uneasy that I assumed that both $P_k$ and $P_{k+1}$ were true. Is this line of reasoning valid?
Any advice helps, thanks!
$P_k$ is the statement that $d_k >0$. You showed that $d_{k+1} >d_k$ so if you assume $P_k$ you get $d_{k+1} >d_k>0$ which shows that $P_{k+1}$ is true.