Prove that for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$,
$$n(n^2 - 1) = \frac{(n+1)!}{(n-2)!}.$$
Thanks in advance.
$\require{cancel}$
If you really want to express $n(n^2 - 1)$ using factorials, note that $$n(n^2 - 1) = n(n+1)(n-1) = (n+1)(n)(n-1) = \frac{(n+1)n(n-1)\cancel{(n-2)}\cdots \cancel{2}\cdot 1}{\cancel{(n - 2)}\cancel{ (n-3)}\cdots \cancel{2}\cdot 1}$$
So we have that $$n(n^2 - 1) = \dfrac{(n+1)!}{(n-2)!}$$
So the given identity you are asked to prove is incorrect: the numerator needs to be $(n + 1)!$.
Here is how
$$n(n-1)=\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)!}{(n-2)!}=\frac{n!}{(n-2)!}$$
$$ n+1 = \frac{(n+1)!}{n!}.$$
Can you finish it?
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$\require{cancel}$
If you really want to express $n(n^2 - 1)$ using factorials, note that $$n(n^2 - 1) = n(n+1)(n-1) = (n+1)(n)(n-1) = \frac{(n+1)n(n-1)\cancel{(n-2)}\cdots \cancel{2}\cdot 1}{\cancel{(n - 2)}\cancel{ (n-3)}\cdots \cancel{2}\cdot 1}$$
So we have that $$n(n^2 - 1) = \dfrac{(n+1)!}{(n-2)!}$$
So the given identity you are asked to prove is incorrect: the numerator needs to be $(n + 1)!$.