From the Fourier Transform Table I found that the transform of $\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}δ(t-nT)$ is equal to $S_2$. Using the definition of Fourier Transform (integration) I found that it is equal to $S_1$, where
$$ S_1=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\exp(-iωnT) $$ $$ S_2=\cfrac{2π}{T}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}δ(ω-\cfrac{2πn}{T}) $$ How can we prove that $S_1=S_2$?
Thank you in advance
This is the distributional way to define the Fourier series theorem (that $C^1$ periodic functions are equal to their Fourier series).
For $f\in C^1_c(a,a+1)$ and $F$ its $1$-periodization
$$\langle \sum_n \delta(t-n),f\rangle \overset{def}=\sum_n f(n)=F(0)$$
$$\langle \sum_n e^{-2i\pi nt},f\rangle \overset{def}=\sum_n c_n(F),\qquad c_n(F)=\int_0^1 F(t)e^{-2i\pi nt}dt=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)e^{-2i\pi nt}dt$$ The Fourier series theorem is that $F(0)=\sum_n c_n(F)$, thus by definition $ \sum_n \delta(t-n)=\sum_n e^{-2i\pi nt}$ in the sense of distributions.
Be careful that $\sum_n e^{-2i\pi nt}$ converges only in the sense of distributions, it diverges in the sense of functions.