$f(x)=(\sin x+\cos x)^{100}$ in $ \mathbb{R}$.
(My attempt)
I first thought that it is not uniformly continuous.
Using $\sin x+\cos x=\sqrt{2}\sin\left(x+\frac{\pi }{4}\right)$,
then $f(x)=2^{50}\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)^{100}$
Let $\epsilon > 0 $ be given.
For every $\delta > 0$, let $ x=2n\pi -\frac{\pi }{4}+\frac{\delta }{2} $
and $ y=2n\pi -\frac{\pi }{4}-\frac{\delta }{2}$ for any $n\in \mathbb{N}$.
That is $\left \lvert x-y \right\rvert< \frac{\delta }{2}< \delta $. Then $\left \lvert f(x)-f(y) \right \rvert=2^{50}\left \lvert \sin\left(x+\frac{\pi }{4}\right)-\cos\left(x+\frac{\pi }{4}\right) \right \rvert\left \lvert \left(\sin\left(x+\frac{\pi }{4}\right)\right)^{99}+ \dots +\left(\cos(x+\frac{\pi }{4}) \right)^{99} \right \rvert=2^{51}\left \lvert \sin\left(\frac{\delta }{4}\right) \right \rvert\left \lvert 100\left(\sin\left(\frac{\delta }{4}\right)\right)^{99} \right |=200\cdot 2^{50}\left \lvert \left(\sin\left(\frac{\delta }{4}\right)\right)^{100}\right \rvert> 1=\epsilon $.
So, it is contradiction. Hence, $f$ is not uniformly continous in $ \mathbb{R}$.
But, the answer to this problem is that $f(x)$ is uniformly continuous $ \mathbb{R}$.
I don't know why this is uniformly continuous.
The function $f$ is continuous Therefore, $f|_{[0,2\pi]}$ is uniformly continuous and, since $f$ is also periodic, with period equal to $2\pi$, it is not hard to deduce that $f$ is indeed uniformly continuous.