I am trying to prove this by showing that $A$ has no finite subcover. I have shown that $A$ is contained in an open cover, but am stuck to proceed forward.
My attempt:
Suppose we have a collection of open sets, $U = \left \{ (\frac{1}{n},2):n\in\mathbb{N} \right \}$. Choose arbitrary $\frac{1}{n}$ from $A$ and for all $n$, we see that $\frac{1}{n+1} <\frac{1}{n}<2$. Hence, $A$ is contained in $\bigcup_{n\in \mathbb{N}} (\frac{1}{n},2)$ so $U$ is an open cover of $A$.
Now we proceed using proof by contradiction:
Suppose that we have such a finite subcover, then we have $A\subseteq\bigcup_{n\in I} (\frac{1}{n},2)$ with $I=\{n_1,\ldots,n_k\}$ (finitely many indices), so we take $m=\max\limits_{1\leq i\leq k}n_i$ and note that $A\subseteq\bigcup_{n\in I} (\frac{1}{n},2)\subseteq \bigcup_{n=1}^m (\frac{1}{n},2)=(\frac{1}{m},2)$, but we see that $\frac{1}{m+1}\in A$ and $\frac{1}{m+1}\not\in (\frac{1}{m},2)$, which is a contradiction.