I have been asked to prove the following and am having difficulty:
If $m$ and $n$ are even integers, then so are $m+n$ and $mn$.
My professor has hinted to us to use the definition of an even integer in our proof.
This is my proof for $m+n$ thus far:
- Even integers are defined as being divisible by 2.
- So, if $m$, is even, using this definition we can rewrite this as $m=2j$.
- Similarly, we can rewrite $n$ as $n=2k$.
- We now have $m+n=2k+2j$.
- Distributivity then allows us to write $2j+2k=2(j+k)$
- We now have that $m+n=2(j+k)$.
- I now use associativity to create $m+n=(j+k)2$
Next, the definition of divisibility states that 'When $m$ and $n$ are integers, we say $m$ is divisible by $n$ if there exists $j∈ Z$ such that $m=jn$.
This allows me to conclude that, since all even numbers are divisible by 2, that $m+n$ must be an even number.
I am unsure about whether or not my last two steps are correct. Our teacher has hinted to us to use the definition of divisibility, but I am having trouble wrapping my head around a. how to use it, and b. how it is accurate to do so?
Any advice would be much appreciated!
This looks mostly right, well done! As noted in the comments, there is a small error in 9. You wish to use the fact that all numbers that are divisible by $2$ are even to conclude that it's even. Instead, you evoke the fact that all even numbers are divisible by $2$.