
I have found a problem form internet and got stucked trying to proof or disproof it.
It says:
Given $AD=AE$, $BF=FC$, prove $\triangle ABE\cong\triangle ACD$
Update 1
The @Matrial's solution seems very promising however solving $FC=BF$ is killing me, wonder if there were solutions, say, more Euclidean?
we do it by using the coordinate system like the picture.
Suppose: $A=(0,0),D=(a,0),B=(b,0)$, because $AD=AE$, so $E=(a\cos(\theta),a\sin(\theta))$. $E$ is a point on the line $AC$, so we can propose a coefficient $\lambda$ that satisfies $AC=\lambda\cdot AE$ and $0<\lambda<1$, then $C=(\lambda a\cos(\theta),\lambda a\sin(\theta))$.
Now we can get the function of the two line $CD$ and $BE$, the result is $$CD:y=\frac{\lambda\sin(\theta)}{\lambda \cos(\theta)-1}(x-a)$$ $$BE: y=\frac{a\sin(\theta)}{a\cos(\theta)-b}(x-b)$$ Now we calculate the intersection of these two lines and get $$F:x_F=\frac{a[\lambda\cos(\theta)(a-b)-(\lambda-1)b]}{a-\lambda b}\\y_F=\frac{a\lambda\sin(\theta)(a-b)}{a-\lambda b}$$ Now we use the condition $FC=BF$, and have the equation about the coefficient $\lambda$ $$(b-x_F)^2+y_F^2=(\lambda a\cos(\theta)-x_F)^2+(\lambda a\sin(\theta)-y_F)^2$$ Solve it and eliminate the solution no real and the solution $\lambda>1$, we have the unique solution $$\lambda = \frac{b}{a}$$ Now we can say that $AC=AB$ and your equality is proven.