Prove: $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash Pb\rightarrow Pa$ Using Hilbert Calculus
Format of solution: Step (my understanding)
Solution:
(1) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash Pb\rightarrow b\equiv a$ (from $Px\rightarrow x\equiv a$ on the left of $\vdash$)
(2) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash b\equiv a \rightarrow (Pb\rightarrow Pa)$ (Where does this come from?)
(3) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash Pb\rightarrow (Pb\rightarrow Pa)$ (From (1) and (2) since $\rightarrow$ is transitive)
(4) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash (Pb\rightarrow (Pb\rightarrow Pa))\rightarrow ((Pb\rightarrow Pb)\rightarrow (Pb\rightarrow Pa))$ (Hilbert Axiom)
(5) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash (Pb\rightarrow Pb)\rightarrow (Pb\rightarrow Pa)$ (Modus Ponens)
(6) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash (Pb\rightarrow Pb)$ (Hilbert Axiom)
(7) $\forall x(Px\rightarrow x\equiv a)\vdash (Pb\rightarrow Pa)$ (Modus Ponens)
I feel I understand the general argument and every step but one, I have no idea where step (2) of the solution comes from.
I would be grateful for an explanation of step (2)
Step two could actually be $b\equiv a \rightarrow (Pb\leftrightarrow Pa)$. If two items are equal, they have the same properties.